Friday, 10 March 2017

***PhD Interview Experiences (CSE) IITs***

During my PhD admission, I used to search for PhD Interview experiences on web, but never got much help from it. Knowledge is what your share to people who need it. I believe this information may help many people applying for PhD at different IITs.

IIT Bombay


To all the optimistic people out there, here is your dream college. IIT Bombay calls almost every candidate who applies for it (to give everyone a chance). You can expect over 300 candidates coming for the admission process.

First Round: Their first round is a written exam consisting of 30 (might change this year) questions.  No MCQ, all the questions are fill-in-the-blanks. They will give you a piece of code with some blanks, you have to fill them. Emphasis is on Algorithms, Data-Structures and Discrete Mathematics.

Second Round: If you get shortlisted for the next round, you will feel a certain relief, as only 20-30 candidates qualify the written exam.
Second round is Advanced Test, most probability consisting of subjective questions or programming questions.

Third Round: They will shortlist only 5-10 candidates for the last round, which is Interview round. No need to go there, if you’re not fully prepared. If you’re not prepared, they’ll know!

IIT Madras


IIT Madras calls around 300 candidates for the admission process.

First Round: First round is a written exam consisting of 30 MCQ questions. The paper pattern resembles GATE, with slightly higher difficulty level.

Second Round: You need to perform really well in the written exam, as only 15-20 candidates qualify it. They go directly to the interview round. They’ll have 3 Interview Panels according to the research areas. You can select any two of them according to your interest or MTech research area.


IIT Gandhinagar


In the last session IIT Gandhinagar called around 70 candidates for the admission process.

First Round: Their first round is a written exam consisting of 30 MCQs. Emphasis is on Mathematics, Discrete Mathematics, and Data Structures.

Second Round: After the written exam, they shortlist around 8-10 candidates for the Interview. The panel has cool professors; they won’t ask any formal questions. All you have to do is to present the model of your research. They can listen to you for an hour, you just have to explain the kind of research you have done so far, and the kind of research you intend to do in future.


IIT Roorkee


IIT Roorkee calls as many as 300-350 candidates for the admission process.

First Round: Their first round is a written exam consisting of 100 questions (As far as I remember). The difficulty level is slightly lower than GATE.  Questions from every subject are asked in the written exam.

Second Round: They set a cut-off of 60% for the written exam. So, around 75-100 qualify it. Second round is an Interview Round. As the number of candidates is around 100, interviews will take 2 days.

Before the interviews, you have to give 3 areas of interest, according to that you’ll be called by the panels. Some 8-10 professors are available in each panel, but only the professor working in your desired research area will ask questions. You need to satisfy them with your answers. Do not try to confuse them. Be simple as much as you can.

IIT BHU


IIT-BHU calls around 150 candidates for the admission process.

Candidates from CFTI with 8.0 or above CGPA are eligible to directly to the second round.

First Round: Their first round is a written exam, which might contain 50 questions from every GATE subject. The difficulty level is same as GATE. There is no negative marking, but you have to secure 60% marks to qualify this test. But candidates who qualify written exam have very high chances of getting selected. From last two sessions, only 3 candidates are qualifying the written exam, and every time they all were selected.

Second Round: The second round is an Interview Round. They can ask anything. With anything, I mean anything!


IIT Mandi


IIT Mandi calls around 50-75 candidates (varies session to session) for the admission process.

First Round: Their first round is a written exam consisting of some 50 MCQs. The difficulty level is not that high. I attended the admission process in the last session, almost everyone qualified the first round.

Second Round: Second round is an interview round, which you will love. They will start from basic mathematics questions such as set theory, Venn diagrams, probability and move forward with data structures and algorithms and questions on your research area.

Since IIT Mandi is situated near Himalayas, they have plenty of projects with huge grants. After the interview, they might offer you the position of Project Associate on an ongoing project. If they offer you that, please take it. That is really an awesome thing, which might open the gates of foreign admissions.

IIT Guwahati




IIT Guwahati calls around 100-150 candidates for the admission process.

First Round: Their first round is a written exam with moderate difficulty level. All MCQs.

Second Round: They will shortlist around 20 candidates for the Interview Round. You need to prepare a 10 minutes presentation on any topic. After that they will ask questions based on your presentation and some data structure questions.

IIT Bhubaneswar


IIT Bhubaneswar calls not many candidates. In the last session they called 17 candidates for the admission process.

First Round: The first round is a written exam, consisting of 10 subjective questions. You may need to write theory.

Second Round: In the last session, they shortlisted only 1 candidate for interview round, I was not him.




My name is Shivang Agarwal. I am currently pursuing PhD at IIT (BHU) Varanasi. I have created this blog to share the information which may be useful for the candidates applying for PhD or Masters at IITs, NITs, or IIITs, 
I request my friends to collaborate with me and share their Interview Experiences.
Please follow this blog to keep yourself updated with latest news about admissions. I will keep posting such useful stuff.


Wednesday, 8 March 2017

***PhD Admissions 2017-18 (CSE) New IITs***

IIT Hyderabad


Application Dates: To be announced shortly!.

Eligibility:
Candidates with a B.Tech/B.E/B.S./M.Sc/MCA and having a M.Tech/M.E/M.S. degree in in CSE/IT/ECE/EE can apply:
1.1 General/OBC(creamy layer) Category    
  • B.Tech/B.E/B.S/M.Sc/MCA: 7.0 CGPA                  
  • M.Tech/M.E/M.S. in CSE/IT/ECE/EE: 7.0 CGPA
1.2 Reservation - OBC non-creamy layer Category
  • B.Tech/B.E/B.S/M.Sc/MCA: 6.3 CGPA                  
  • M.Tech/M.E./M.S. in CSE/IT/ECE/EE: 6.3 CGPA
1.3 Reservation - SC, ST Category
  • B.Tech/B.E/B.S/M.Sc/MCA: 5.9 CGPA
  • M.Tech/M.E./M.S. in CSE/IT/ECE/EE: 5.9 CGPA
Candidates with M.Tech/M.E./M.S./M.Sc-Engg degree in CSE/IT/ECE/EE from IITs/IISc/NITs, the cutoffs are relaxed as
  • 6.5 CGPA General/OBC(creamy layer)
  • 5.8 CGPA OBC non-creamy layer
  • 5.5 CGPA for SC, ST category

IIT Gandhinagar


Application Dates: 13 January 2017 to 05 March 2017

Application Fee: 0 (No Application Fee)

Eligibility: 
BE/BTech/MTech/ME in CS/EC/EE with 65% marks (60% for SC/ST/PD) or 6.5 (6.0 for SC/ST/PD) CPI/CGPA on the scale of 10 OR MSc in Mathematics/Physics or related areas with 1st class or 65% marks (60% for SC/ST/PD) or 6.5 (6.0 for SC/ST/PD) CPI/CGPA on the scale of 10 and strong interest in computer science and engineering. 


IIT Mandi


Application Dates: To be announced shortly!

Eligibility:
Candidates with a Master’s degree in Engineering/Technology with a good academic record or a Master’s degree by Research in Engineering/ Technology disciplines, with a good academic record.
Candidates who have qualified for the award of Bachelor’s degree in Engineering/Technology with exceptionally good academic record in an eligible discipline will be considered for direct admission to Ph.D. 
Program as a regular full time scholar subject to the following conditions: 
(I) B.Tech degree from one of the IITs, with a minimum CGPA of 8.0 on a 10.0 point scale. 
(II) Bachelor’s degree in Engineering/ Technology from any other University, should be among the top 5% or 20 rank holders, declared by the University and having a valid GATE score. 
(III) Bachelor’s degree holder in Engineering/ Technology, serving for two years or more in a reputed R & D organization and having a proven research record.

IIT Indore


Application Dates: To be announced shortly!

Eligibility: 
1. Minimum first class* Master degree in the relevant discipline of the Engineering/Technology, OR
2. Minimum first class* Bachelor degree in the relevant Engineering/ Technology discipline from a
reputed Institute with a valid GATE score,
OR
3. BTech degree from an Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) with a minimum CPI of 8.0 OR
4. Minimum first Class* Master degree in the relevant discipline of Science with valid GATE qualification
OR UGC/CSIR-JRF qualification OR equivalent fellowship.

IIT Ropar



Application Dates: To be started on 12 March 2017

Eligibility: 

M.Tech./M.E/M.S. or equivalent qualification in computer science and engineering or equivalent degree with 60% marks (or 6.5 grade point out of 10) (55% marks for SC/ST).

However, exceptional candidates having B.Tech/B.E qualification with valid GATE score can apply for direct admission to PhD programme.

A candidate with a Bachelor's degree from any IIT and having a CGPA/CPI score of 8.00 (out of 10.0) and above are exempted from requirement of GATE qualification.


IIT Bhubaneswar



Application Dates: To be announced shortly!

**PhD Admissions 2017-18 (CSE) Old IITs**


As there is no central authority or exam for PhD admissions in India, students suffer a lot. During my PhD admission, I used to maintain a journal, but still I failed to apply at some good institutes. This is my attempt for providing all the information about PhD admissions at one place.
Here is all you need to know!

IISc Bangalore


Application Dates: 01 Feb 2017 to 29th March 2017

Dates of Interviews: 5th-9th June  
                                   Interdisciplinary Programme- 3 & 4 June 2017

Application fee: Rs 800 for GN/OBC & Rs.400 for SC/ST/PH candidates, bank charges extra.

Eligibility: 
For BTech degree holders- Valid GATE score / NET JRF is mandatory
For MTech degree holders- Desirable to have valid GATE score / NET JRF.

Shortlisting Criteria: Candidates with ME /M Tech / M Sc (Engg) / MS / MBA (post BE / B Tech / Master’s degree) degree holders will be short-listed for interview for Ph D programmes based on their academic performance (including their past performance in the national tests, qualified prior to their Master’s studies, and/or the number of Publications if any will be given weightage).



IIT Delhi



Application Dates: 09th March- 31st March 2017

Application Fees: 200 for Gen/OBC, 50 for SC/ST

Eligibility Criteria:
For MTech degree holders- 60% or 6.75 CGPA
For BTech degree holders- 70% or 7.75 CGPA + GATE Qualified


IIT Bombay


Application Dates: To be announced shortly!

Application Fees:
Women candidates                             :  Rs. 150/­ 
SC/ST/PwD category candidates       :   Rs. 150/­
All other candidates                           :  Rs.  300/­ 

Eligibility:
1.    Students with no CSE undergraduate background -referred to as "NoCSE". (These include students with all levels of degrees: BE/ME/Ph.D. in other fields).
2.    Students with UG CSE background (B.E/Btech/MSc/MCA in Computer Science or IT, or with B.E/Btech/MSc in any field, but having a valid GATE Computer Science score)- referred to as "UGCSE".
3.    Students with PG CSE background (i.e. CS/IT M. Techs) - referred to as "PGCSE".

UG Background Requirement
1.    NoCSE
§  Students should take any 6 courses in the first year from a prescribed list which includes but is not limited to: Computer Organization, Operating Systems, Principles of Programming Languages, Algorithms, Data Structures, Theory of Computation, Discrete Structures, Linear Optimization, Formal Methods, Computer Networks, Computer Graphics.
§  A 7.5 and above CPI in these 6 courses is required. Getting this minimum CPI will constitute as the "UG preparation".
§  If some student has taken any of these courses already (e.g. EE student may have taken Computer Organization), a "transfer of credit" may be considered on production of transcript and grade. The student should then directly be given an exam and a grade by the course instructor. Such cases will be considered individually.
§  If CPI is below 7.5 and above 6.0, student can request to transfer to PGDIIT.
§  Once UG background is achieved and CPI requirements met, student can actively start looking for a guide, who will then recommend PG courses.
2.    UGCSE
§  No additional UG background pre-requisite.
3.    PGCSE
§  No additional UG background pre-requisite.

PG Background Pre-requisites
After attaining UG background if required, a student may actively start searching for a guide. PG courses may then be selected by consultation with the guide. The requirements are:
§  Category 1 and 2:
§  Minimum 5 PG courses + 1 seminar
§  A minimum 7.5 CPI must be maintained.
§  Seminar grade minimum must be BB
§  If CPI is below 7.5 but above 6.0, student may apply for transfer to M.S.
§  Category 3 (CSE M. Techs.)
§  2-4 PG courses as prescribed by Ph.D. facad + 1 seminar.
§  Minimum CPI of 7.5 must be maintained
§  Seminar grade minimum must be BB.

IIT Madras

Application Dates: 01st March to 02nd April 2017

Interview Dates: 01st May to 12th May 2017

Application Fees: 
GN/OBC-NCL Male candidates : Rs.100/-
GN/OBC-NCL Female candidates : Rs.50/-
SC/ST and PwD candidates : Rs.50/-

Eligibility: 
For MTech degree holders- Valid GATE score
For BTech degree holders- Degree from CFTI with 8.0 CGPA (Gen), 7.5 (OBC-NCL), 7.0 (Sc/ST/PwD)


IIT Roorkee


Application Dates: 10th Feb to 24th Feb 2017
Dates have passed!

IIT (BHU) Varanasi


Application Dates: To be announced shortly

Eligibility: 
For MTech degree holders- 60% with GATE Qualification
For BTech degree holders- 75% with GATE

IIT Kharagpur


Application Dates: 13th March 2017 to 16th April 2017

Application Fee: Rs. 1000/- for General/OBC (Male and Transgender) and Rs. 500/- for SC/ST/PwD category and women candidates. 

Eligibility: 
MTech: 60% (Gen) 55% (SC)
IIT B.Tech.’s with CGPA >= 8.00


IIT Guwahati

Application Dates: To be announced shortly!

Eligibility:
A regular student of IIT Guwahati who is continuing his/her M.Tech. studies and having a minimum CPI of 8.0 at the end of second semester may be enrolled in the Ph.D. programme of the Department in the beginning of his/her third semester of study. Such students can receive only Ph.D. Degree.

A student of IIT Guwahati who is continuing his/her B.Tech. studies and having a minimum CPI of 6.5 at the end of sixth semester may be enrolled in the Ph.D. programme of the Department in the beginning of his/her seventh semester of study. Such students can receive dual B.Tech. and Ph.D. Degree. Both the degrees will be awarded after completion of Ph.D. degree.

Thursday, 26 January 2017

**Complete Solved Paper** UGC NET Paper-III Computer Science Solved Paper with Explanations




1. Which of the following is an interrupt according to temporal relationship with system clock?
(A) Maskable interrupt
(B) Periodic interrupt
(C) Division by zero
(D) Synchronous interrupt


Solution: 
Maskable Interrupt: The hardware interrupts which can be delayed when a much highest priority interrupt has occurred to the processor.
Periodic Interrupt: If the interrupts occurred at fixed interval in timeline then that interrupts are called periodic interrupts.
Synchronous Interrupt: The source of interrupt is in phase to the system clock is called synchronous interrupt. In other words interrupts which are dependent on the system clock. Example: timer service that uses the system clock.
Division by Zero: Unplanned interrupts while executing a program is called Exception. For example: while executing a program if we got a value which should be divided by zero is called a exception.

Ans: (D)


2. Which of the following is incorrect for virtual memory?
(A) Large programs can be written
(B) More I/O is required
(C) More addressable memory available
(D) Faster and easy swapping of process

Solution:
Virtual memory is a feature of an operating system (OS) that allows a computer to compensate for shortages of physical memory by temporarily transferring pages of data from random access memory (RAM) to disk storage.

Ans: (B)

3. The general configuration of the microprogrammed control unit is given below:
What are blocks B and C in the diagram respectively?
(A) Block address register and cache memory
(B) Control address register and control memory
(C) Branch register and cache memory
(D) Control address register and random access memory

Solution: 

Ans: (B)

4. Match the following:
Addressing Mode      Location of operand
a. Implied                      i. Registers which are in CPU
b. Immediate                 ii. Register specifies the address
of the operand
c. Register                     iii. Specified in the register
d. Register Indirect      iv. Specified implicitly in the
definition of instruction
Codes:
     a   b   c  d
(A) iv  iii   i   ii
(B) iv  i    iii  ii
(C) iv  ii   i   iii
(D) iv  iii  ii   i

Ans: (A)

5. In 8085 microprocessor, the digit 5 indicates that the microprocessor needs
(A) -5 volts, +5 volts supply
(B) +5 volts supply only
(C) -5 volts supply only
(D) 5 MHz clock

Solution: The "5" in the part number highlighted the fact that the 8085 uses a single +5-volt (V) power supply by using depletion-mode transistors, rather than requiring the +5 V, −5 V and +12 V supplies needed by the 8080.

Ans: (B)

6. In 8085, which of the following performs: load register pair immediate operation?
(A) LDAX rp
(B) LHLD addr
(C) LXI rp, data
(D) INX rp

Ans: (C)


7. Consider following schedules involving two transactions:
S1: r1(X); r1(Y); r2(X); r2(Y); w2(Y); w1(X)
S2: r1(X); r2(X); r2(Y); w2(Y); r1(Y); w1(X)
Which of the following statement is true?
(1) Both S1 and S2 are conflict serializable.
(2) S1 is conflict serializable and S2 is not conflict serializable.
(3) S1 is not conflict serializable and S2 is conflict serializable.
(4) Both S1 and S2 are not conflict serializable.

Solution: Since S1 contains a cycle, it is not a conflict serializable schedule, but S2 is a conflict serializable schedule.

Ans: (C)

8. Which one is correct w.r.t. RDBMS?
(A) primary key ⊆ super key ⊆ candidate key
(B) primary key ⊆ candidate key ⊆ super key
(C) super key ⊆ candidate key ⊆ primary key
(D) super key ⊆ primary key ⊆ candidate key

Solution: A relation has one or more candidate keys and one candidate key can be selected as a primary key for the relation. One or more attributes which can define all the other attributes in a relation is called a super key. Hence, primary key is a subset of candidate key and candidate key is a subset of super key.

Ans: (B)


9. Let pk(R) denotes primary key of relation R. A many-to-one relationship that exists between two relations R1 and R2 can be expressed as follows:
(A) pk(R2)→pk(R1)
(B) pk(R1)→pk(R2)
(C) pk(R2)→R1∩R2
(D) pk(R1)→R1∩R2

Solution: An arrow mark from A to B defines that there exists a many to one relationship between A to B. In case of Many To One, we need to consider only the primary keys of relation with many attributes. 


Ans: (C)

10.   For a database relation R(A,B,C,D) where the domains of A,B,C and D include only atomic values, only the following functional dependencies and those that can be inferred from them are:
A→C
B→D
The relation R is in ................
(A) First normal form but not in second normal form
(B) Both in first normal form as well as in second normal form
(C) Second normal form but not in third normal form
(D) Both in second normal form as well as in third normal form

Solution: In the above relation R, the candidate key is AB, so in the first functional dependency there exists a Partial Dependency. The second FD also shows partial dependency, so the relation cannot be in 2NF.

Ans: (A)

11. Consider the following relation:
Works (emp_name, company_name, salary)
Here, emp_name is primary key.
Consider the following SQL query
Select emp_name
From Works T
where salary>(select avg (salary)
from Works S
where T.company_name=
S. Company_name)
The above query is for following:
(A) Find the highest paid employee who earns more than the average salary of all employees of his company.
(B) Find the highest paid employee who earns more than the average salary of all the employees of all the companies.
(C) Find all employees who earn more than the average salary of all employees of all the companies.
(D) Find all employees who earn more than the average salary of all employees of their company.
Solution: In the inner query, we are selecting the average salary of all employees of the company, whereas outer query is selecting all the employees whose salary is greater than the previously computed average salary.

Ans: (D)

12. 
If the following sequence of keys is inserted in a B+ tree with K(=3) pointers:
8, 5, 1, 7, 3, 12, 9, 6
Which of the following shall be correct B+ tree?



Solution: After inserting all the elements, we'll get 5 as the root and 3 will be left of 5 and 7,8 will be right of 5.


Ans: (A)

13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Persistence is the term used to describe the duration of phosphorescence.
(B) The control electrode is used to turn the electron beam on and off.
(C) The electron gun creates a source of electrons which are focussed into a narrow beam directed at the face of CRT.
(D) All of the above.

Solution: Different kinds of phosphor are available for use in a CRT. Besides color, a major difference between phosphors is their persistence: how long they continue to emit light ( that is, have excited electrons returning to the ground state ) after the CRTbeam is removed.

Ans: (D)

14. A segment is any object described by GKS commands and data that start with CREATE SEGMENT and Terminates with CLOSE SEGMENT command. What functions can be performed on these segments?
(A) Translation and Rotation
(B) Panning and Zooming
(C) Scaling and Shearing
(D) Translation, Rotation, Panning and Zooming

Ans: (D)


15. Match the following:
a. Glass                         i. Contains liquid crystal and serves
as a bonding surface for a conductive
coating.
b. Conductive coating ii. Acts as a conductor so that a voltage
can be applied across the liquid crystal.
c. Liquid Crystal           iii. A substance which will polarize light
when a voltage is applied to it.
d. Polarized film           iv. A transparent sheet that polarizes light.
Codes:
     a  b   c   d
(A) i   ii   iii  iv
(B) i   iii  ii   iv
(C) iv iii   ii  i
(D) iv ii   i   iii


Ans: (A)

16. Below are the few steps given for scan-converting a circle using Bresenham's Algorithm. Which of the given steps is not correct?
(1) Compute d = 3 – 2r (where r is radius)
(2) Stop if x > y
(3) If d<0, then d=4x+6 and x=x+1
(4) If d≥0,then d=4 *(x-y)+10, x=x+1 and y=y+1

Solution: 

Algorithm

Step 1 − Get the coordinates of the center of the circle and radius, and store them in x, y, and R respectively. Set P=0 and Q=R.

Step 2 − Set decision parameter D = 3 – 2R.

Step 3 − Repeat through step-8 while X < Y.

Step 4 − Call Draw Circle (X, Y, P, Q).

Step 5 − Increment the value of P.

Step 6 − If D < 0 then D = D + 4x + 6.

Step 7 − Else Set Y = Y + 1, D = D + 4(X-Y) + 10.

Step 8 − Call Draw Circle (X, Y, P, Q).

Ans: (D)

17. Which of the following is/are side effects of scan conversion?
a. Aliasing
b. Unequal intensity of diagonal lines
c. Over striking in photographic applications
d. Local or Global aliasing
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

Solution: All 4 are the side effects of scan conversion.

Ans: (4)


18. Consider a line AB with A = (0,0) and B = (8, 4). Apply a simple DDA algorithm and compute the first four plots on this line.
(A) [(0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 2)]
(B) [(0, 0), (1, 1.5), (2, 2), (3, 3)]
(C) [(0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 2.5), (3, 3)]
(D) [(0, 0), (1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2)]

Solution: 

DDA Algorithm

Digital Differential Analyzer (DDA) algorithm is the simple line generation algorithm which is explained step by step here.

Step 1 − Get the input of two end points  and 

Step 2 − Calculate the difference between two end points.
dx = X1 - X0
dy = Y1 - Y0
Step 3 − Based on the calculated difference in step-2, you need to identify the number of steps to put pixel. If dx > dy, then you need more steps in x coordinate; otherwise in y coordinate.
if (absolute(dx) > absolute(dy))
   Steps = absolute(dx);
else
   Steps = absolute(dy);
Step 4 − Calculate the increment in x coordinate and y coordinate.
Xincrement = dx / (float) steps;
Yincrement = dy / (float) steps;
Step 5 − Put the pixel by successfully incrementing x and y coordinates accordingly and complete the drawing of the line.
for(int v=0; v < Steps; v++)
{
   x = x + Xincrement;
   y = y + Yincrement;
   putpixel(Round(x), Round(y));
}
Ans: (A)


19. Which of the following are not regular?
(A) Strings of even number of a’s.
(B) Strings of a’s, whose length is a prime number.
(C) Set of all palindromes made up of a’s and b’s.
(D) Strings of a’s whose length is a perfect square.

(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

Solution: Language which contains strings of even length of a's is a regular language. Apart from that, no other language given in options is a regular one, because they require computations.

Ans: (3)

20. Consider the languages L1 = ϕ, and L2 = {1}. Which one of the following represents
L1* U L2* L1* ?
(1) {ε}
(2) {ε,1}
(3) ϕ
(4) 1*

Solution: L1* = {ε}
L2* = 1*
L1* U L2* L1* = 1*
Concatenation has higher priority than Union.

Ans: (D)


21. 

Given the following statements :
(A) A class of languages that is closed under union and complementation has to be closed under intersection.
(B) A class of languages that is closed under union and intersection has to be closed under complementation.
Which of the following options is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(C) (A) is true, (B) is false.
(D) (A) is false, (B) is true.


Solution: Since L1  L2 =  by De Morgan's law, Option (C) is correct.
Ans: (C)

22. Let G = (V,T,S,P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of the form A→v, with |v| = K>1. The derivation tree for any W ϵ L(G) has a height h such that

Ans: (D)

23. Given the following two languages:
L1 = {anbn|n≥0, n≠100}
L2 = {w ϵ {a,b,c}*| na(w) = nb(w) = nc(w)}
Which of the following options is correct?
(A) Both L1 and L2 are not context free language.
(B) Both L1 and L2 are context free language.
(C) L1 is context free language, L2 is not context free language.
(D) L1 is not context free language, L2 is context free language.

Solution: Since L1 can be computed by PDA, it is a Context Free Language, but L2 requires two computations, so it cannot be computed by a PDA.

Ans: (C)
24. A recursive function h, is defined as follows:
h(m)=k, if m=0
    = 1, if m=1
= 2h(m-1) + 4h(m-2), if m≥2
If the value of h(4) is 88 then the value of k is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) -1
Solution: h(0)=k
h(1)=1
h(2)= 2h(1) + 4h(0)= 2+4k
h(3)= 4+8k + 4= 8+8k
h(4) = 16+16k + 8+ 16k= 32k+ 24
Now, 32k+ 24 = 88
32k= 64
k= 2

Ans: (C)

25. Suppose there are n stations in a slotted LAN. Each station attempts to transmit with a probability P in each time slot. The probability that only one station transmits in a given slot is ..................
(1) nP(1-P)n-1
(2) nP
(3) P(1-P)n-1
(4) nP(1-P)n-1


Solution: The probability that a particular station transmits and no body else transmits = p*(1-p)^(n-1)
The probability that any station can transmit = n*(probability that a particular station transmits) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1).

Ans: (A)

26. 
Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to station B using sliding window protocol. The round trip delay between A and B is 40 milli seconds and the bottleneck bandwidth on the path between A and B is 64 kbps. The optimal window size of A is
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 30
(D) 40
Solution: Round Trip propagation delay = 40ms 
Frame size = 32*8 bits 
Bandwidth = 64kbps 
Transmission Time = 32*8/(64) ms = 4 ms 
Let n be the window size. 
UtiliZation = n/(1+2a) where a = Propagation time / transmission time = n/(1+40/4) 
For maximum utilization: n = 11 which is close to option (B)

Ans: (B)

27. Let G(x) be generator polynomial used for CRC checking. The condition that should be satisfied by G(x) to correct odd numbered error bits, will be:
(A) (1+x) is a factor of G(x)
(B) (1-x) is a factor of G(x)
(C) (1+x2) is a factor of G(x)
(D) x is a factor of G(x)

Solution: Click here for explanation

Ans: (A)
28. In a packet switching network, if the message size is 48 bytes and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes. If 24 packets are required to transmit the message, the packet size is ................
(A) 2 bytes
(B) 1 byte
(C) 4 bytes
(D) 5 bytes
Solution: If we are dividing a message of 48 bytes into 24 packets, each packet should have 2 bytes of message. In addition to that, each packet will have a header of 3 bytes.
So the packet size will be 5 bytes.

Ans: (D)

29. In RSA public key cryptosystem suppose n=p*q where p and q are primes. (e,n) and (d,n) are public and private keys respectively. Let M be an integer such that 0<M<n and ɸ(n)=(p-1)(q-1).
Which of the following equations represent RSA public key cryptosystem?
I. C≡Me (mod n), M≡(C)d(mod n)
II. ed≡1(mod n)
III. ed≡(mod ɸ(n))
IV. C≡Me (mod ɸn), M≡Cd(mod ɸn)
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) I and IV
Ans: (B)

30. A node X on a 10 Mbps network is regulated by a token bucket. The token bucket is filled at a rate of 2 Mbps. Token bucket is initially filled with 16 megabits. The maximum
duration taken by X to transmit at full rate of 10 Mbps is ............ secs.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans: (B)


31.

The asymptotic upper bound solution of the recurrence relation given by
T(n)= 2T(n/2)+n/log n is:
(A) O(n2)
(B) O(n log n)
(C) O(n log log n)
(D) O(log log n)

Solution: t(n) = 2t(n/2) + n/log(n)
     = 2(2t(n/4) + n/2/log(n/2)) + n/log(n)
     = 4t(n/4) + n/log(n/2) + n/log(n)
     = 4(2t(n/8) + n/4/log(n/4)) + n/log(n/2) + n/log(n)
     = 8t(n/8) + n/log(n/4) + n/log(n/2) + n/log(n)
     = 16t(n/16) + n/log(n/8) + n/log(n/4) + n/log(n/2) + n/log(n)
     = n * t(1) + n/log(2) + n/log(4) + ... + n/log(n/2) + n/log(n)
     = n(1 + Sum[i = 1 to log(n)](1/log(2^i)))
     = n(1 + Sum[i = 1 to log(n)](1/i))
     ~= n(1 + log(log(n)))
     = n + n*log(log(n)))
     ~= n*log(log(n))
Ans: (C)

32. Any decision tree that sorts n elements has height ..............
(A) Ω(log n)
(B) Ω(n)
(C) Ω(n log n)
(D) Ω(n2)


Ans: (C)

33. Red-black trees are one of many Search tree schemes that are "balanced” in order to guarantee that basic dynamic-set operations take ............. time in the worst case.
(A) O(1)
(B) O(log n)
(C) O(n)
(D) O(n log n)

Solution: 
The dynamic-set operations SEARCHMINIMUMMAXIMUMSUCCESSOR, and PREDECESSOR can be implemented in O(lg n) time on red-black trees, since they can be made to run in O(h) time on a search tree of height h  and any red-black tree on n nodes is a search tree with height O(lg n). 

Ans: (B)

34. The minimum number of scalar multiplication required, for parenthesization of a matrix-chain product whose sequence of dimensions for four matrices is <5,10,3,12,5> is
(A) 630
(B) 580
(C) 480
(D) 405

Solution: 
If we multiply two matrices A and B of order l x m and m x n respectively,then the number of scalar multiplications in the multiplication of A and B will be lxmxn.
These are the dimensions of 4 matrices:
5X10, 10X3, 3X12, 12X5
We multiply them in this order-
(5X10)(10X3)(3X5)=180 multiplications
(5X3)(3X5)= 180+150 multiplications
5X5 = 180 + 150 + 75 = 405 multiplications

Ans: (D)

35.
 Dijkstra’s algorithm is based on
(A) Divide and conquer paradigm
(B) Dynamic Programming
(C) Greedy Approach
(D) Backtracking paradigm



Ans: (C)
36. Match the following with respect to algorithm paradigms:
List-I                              List-II
a. Merge sort                 i. Dynamic Programming
b. Huffman coding      ii. Greedy approach
c. Optimal polygon triangulation iii. Divide and conquer
d. Subset sum problem          iv. Back tracking
Codes:
     a   b  c   d
(A) iii  i   ii   iv
(B) ii   i   iv  iii
(C) ii   i   iii  iv
(D) iii  ii  i    iv

Ans: (D)

37. Abstraction and encapsulation are fundamental principles that underlie the object oriented approach to software development. What can you say about the following two statements?
I. Abstraction allows us to focus on what something does without considering the complexities of how it works.
II. Encapsulation allows us to consider complex ideas while ignoring irrelevant detail that would confuse us.
(A) Neither I nor II is correct.
(B) Both I and II are correct.
(C) Only II is correct.
(D) Only I is correct.


Ans: (D)

38. Given the array of integers ‘array’ shown below:
What is the output of the following JAVA statements?
int [ ] p = new int [10];
int [ ] q = new int [10];
for (int k = 0; k < 10; k ++)
p[k] = array [k];
q = p;
p[4] = 20;
System.out.println(array [4] + “:” + q[4]);
(A) 20:20
(B) 18:18
(C) 18:20
(D) 20:18


Solution: Here the contents of arrays are being copied to array p. Then we are changing the 4th value of the array p. So, at the time of printing, first the content of original array will be printed, then the modified one.

Ans: (C)

39. Consider the following JAVA program:
public class First {
public static int CBSE (int x) {
if (x < 100) x = CBSE (x +10);
return (x - 1);
}
public static void main (String[] args){
System.out.print(First.CBSE(60));
}
}
What does this program print?
(A) 59
(B) 95
(C) 69
(D) 99



Ans: (B)

40. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to an abstract class in JAVA is/are TRUE?
I. An abstract class is one that is not used to create objects.
II. An abstract class is designed only to act as a base class to be inherited by other classes.
(A) Only l
(B) Only II
(C) Neither I nor II
(D) Both l and II

Solution: Ans: (D)

41. Which of the following HTML code will affect the vertical alignment of the table content?
(A) <td style = “vertical-align : middle”>Text Here</td>
(B) <td valign = “centre”>Text Here</td>
(C) <td style = “text-align : center”>Text Here</td>
(D) <td align = “middle”>Text Here</td>

Ans: (B)

42. What can you say about the following statements?
I. XML tags are case-insensitive.
II. In JavaScript, identifier names are case-sensitive.
III. Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) cannot be used with XML.
IV. All well-formed XML documents must contain a document type definition.
(A) only I and II are false.
(B) only III and IV are false.
(C) only I and III are false.
(D) only II and IV are false.

Ans: (C)

43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE with regard to software testing?
I. Regression testing technique ensures that the software product runs correctly after the changes during maintenance.
II. Equivalence partitioning is a white-box testing technique that divides the input domain of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived.
(A) only I
(B) only II
(C) both I and II
(D) neither I nor II

Solution: Equivalence class
 partioning is a Black-Box testig technique.

Ans: (A)

44. 
Which of the following are facts about a top-down software testing approach?
I. Top-down testing typically requires the tester to build method stubs.
II. Top-down testing typically requires the tester to build test drivers.
(A) only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II


Solution: Test drivers are required in
 bottom-up approach.
Ans: (A)

45. 
Match the terms related to Software Configuration Management (SCM) in List-I with the descriptions in List-II.
List-1                 List-II
I. Version           A. An instance of a system that is
distributed to customers.
II. Release         B. An instance of a system which
is functionally identical to other
instances, but designed for different
hardware/software configurations.
III. Variant          C. An instance of a system that differs,
in some way, from other instances.
Codes:
      I   II  III
(1) B  C  A
(2) C  A  B
(3) C  B  A
(4) B  A  C

Ans: (4)

46. A software project was estimated at 352 Function Points (FP). A four person team will be assigned to this project consisting of an architect, two programmers, and a tester. The salary of the architect is Rs.80,000 per month, the programmer Rs.60,000 per month and the tester Rs.50,000 per month. The average productivity for the team is 8 FP per person month. Which of the following represents the projected cost of the project?
(A) Rs.28,16,000
(B) Rs.20,90,000
(C) Rs.26,95,000
(D) Rs.27,50,000

Ans: (D)


47. Complete each of the following sentences in List-I on the left hand side by filling in the word or phrase from the List-II on the right hand side that best completes the sentence:
List-I                                          List-II
I. Determining whether you
have built the right system
is called .............                       A. Software testing
II. Determining whether you
have built the system right
is called .........                           B. Software verification
III. ............ is the process of
demonstrating the existence
of defects or providing
confidence that they do not
appear to be present.              C. Software debugging
IV. .......... is the process of
discovering the cause of a
defect and fixing it.                  D. Software validation
Codes:
      I   II  III  IV
(A) B  D  A  C
(B) B  D  C  A
(C) D  B  C  A
(D) D  B  A  C

Ans: (D)


48. 

A software company needs to develop a project that is estimated as 1000 function points and is planning to use JAVA as the programming language whose approximate lines of code per function point is accepted as 50. Considering a=1.4 as multiplicative factor, b=1.0 as exponention factor for the basic COCOMO effort equation and c=3.0 as multiplicative factor, d=0.33 as exponention factor for the basic COCOMO duration equation, approximately how long does the project take to complete?
(A) 11.2 months
(B) 12.2 months
(C) 13.2 months
(D) 10.2 months

Solution: Effort = a(KLOC)b= 1.4(50)= 70

Time of Development = c(Effort)d = 3(70)0.33

Ans: (B)

49. A memory management system has 64 pages with 512 bytes page size. Physical memory consists of 32 page frames. Number of bits required in logical and physical address are respectively:
(A) 14 and 15
(B) 14 and 29
(C) 15 and 14
(D) 16 and 32

Solution: LAS= 64*512 Bytes
= 2^15
LA= 15 bits
PAS= 32*512 Bytes
= 2^14
PA= 14 bits
Ans: (C)

50. Consider a disk queue with I/O requests on the following cylinders in their arriving order:
6,10,12,54,97,73,128,15,44,110,34,45
The disk head is assumed to be at cylinder 23 and moving in the direction of decreasing number of cylinders. Total number of cylinders in the disk is 150. The disk head movement using SCAN-scheduling algorithm is:
(A) 172
(B) 173
(C) 227
(D) 228

Ans: (B)


51. Match the following for Unix rue system:
List-I                  List-II
a. Boot block     i. Information about file system,
free block list, free inode list etc.
b. Super block ii. Contains operating system files
as well as program and data files
created by users.
c. Inode block   iii. Contains boot program and
partition table.
d. Data block    iv. Contains a table for every file in
the file system. Attributes of files
are stored here.
Codes:
     a   b  c   d
(A) iii   i   ii   iv
(B) iii   i   iv  ii
(C) iv  iii  ii   i
(D) iv  iii  i    ii

Ans: (B)

52. Some of the criteria for calculation of priority of a process are:
a. Processor utilization by an individual process.
b. Weight assigned to a user or group of users.
c. Processor utilization by a user or group of processes.
In fair share scheduler, priority is calculated based on:
(A) only (a) and (b)
(B) only (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)
(D) only (b) and (c)

Ans: (C)


53. One of the disadvantages of user level threads compared to Kernel level threads is
(A) If a user level thread of a process executes a system call, all threads in that process are blocked.
(B) Scheduling is application dependent.
(C) Thread switching doesn’t require kernel mode privileges.
(D) The library procedures invoked for thread management in user level threads are local procedures.

Ans: (A)

54.

Which statement is not correct about “init” process in Unix?
(A) It is generally the parent of the login shell.
(B) It has PID 1.
(C) It is the first process in the system.
(D) Init forks and execs a ‘getty’ process at every port connected to a terminal.


Ans: (C)

55. Consider following two rules R1 and R2 in logical reasoning in Artificial Intelligence (AI):
(A) Only R1 is correct.
(B) Only R2 is correct.
(C) Both R1 and R2 are correct.
(D) Neither R1 nor R2 is correct.
Solution: R1 holds the correct definition for Modes ponens and R2 holds the correct definition of Modes Tollens.

Ans: (D) 

56. Consider the following AO graph:
Which is the best node to expand next by AO* algorithm?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) B and C

Ans: (4)

57.   

In Artificial Intelligence (AI), what is present in the planning graph?
(A) Sequence of levels
(B) Literals
(C) Variables
(D) Heuristic estimates

Ans: (A)

58. 

What is the best method to go for the game playing problem?
(A) Optimal Search
(B) Random Search
(C) Heuristic Search
(D) Stratified Search

Solution: 
A heuristic function, also called simply a heuristic, is a function that ranks alternatives in search algorithms at each branching step based on available information to decide which branch to follow. For example, it may approximate the exact solution.

Ans: (C)


59.

Which of the following statements is true?
(A) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,..., Sn if and only if S1˄S2˄........˄Sn→S is satisfiable.
(B) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,..., Sn if and only if S1˄S2˄........˄Sn→S is valid.
(C) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,..., Sn if and only if S1˄S2˄........˄Sn˄¬S is consistent.
(D) The sentence S is a logical consequence of S1,..., Sn if and only if S1˄S2˄........˄Sn˄S is inconsistent.

Ans: (B)

60.

The first order logic (FOL) statement ((RᴠQ)˄(Pᴠ¬Q)) is equivalent to which of the following?
(A) ((Rᴠ¬Q)ᴧ(Pᴠ¬Q)ᴧ(RᴠP))
(B) ((RᴠQ)ᴧ(Pᴠ¬Q)ᴧ(RᴠP))
(C) ((RᴠQ)ᴧ(Pᴠ¬Q)ᴧ(Rᴠ¬P))
(D) ((RᴠQ)ᴧ(Pᴠ¬Q)ᴧ(¬RᴠP))

Ans: (B)

61. Given the following two statements:
A. L = {w|na(w) = nb(w)} is deterministic context free language, but not linear.
B. L = {an bn} U {an b2n} is linear, but not deterministic context free language.
Which of the following options is correct?
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(3) (A) is true, (B) is false.
(4) (A) is false, (B) is true.

Ans: (2)


62.       Which of the following pairs have different expressive power?
(A) Single-tape-turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.
(B) Multi-tape turing machine and multi-dimensional turing machine.
(C) Deterministic push down automata and non-deterministic pushdown automata.
(D) Deterministic finite automata and Non-deterministic finite automata.
Ans: (C)

63.       Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Every context-sensitive language is recursive.
(B) The set of all languages that are not recursively enumerable is countable.
(C) The family of recursively enumerable languages is closed under union.
(D) The families of recursively enumerable and recursive languages are closed under reversal.

Ans: (B)

64. Let C be a binary linear code with minimum distance 2t + 1 then it can correct upto ............bits of error.
(A) t + 1
(B) t
(C) t - 2
(D) t/2

Ans: (B)


65.       A t-error correcting q-nary linear code must satisfy:
Where M is the number of code words and X is
(A) qn
(B) qt
(C) q-n
(D) q-t

Ans: (B)

66.       Names of some of the Operating Systems are given below:
(a) MS-DOS
(b) XENIX
(c) OS/2
In the above list, following operating systems didn’t provide multiuser facility.
(A) (a) only
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (b) and (C) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (A)

67. From the given data below:
a b b a a b b a a b
which one of the following is not a word in the dictionary created by LZ-coding (the initial words are a, b)?
(1) a b
(2) b b
(3) b a
(4) b a a b

Ans: (C)

68. With respect to a loop in the transportation table, which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Every loop has an odd no. of cells and at least 5.
(B) Closed loops may or may not b square in shape.
(C) All the cells in the loop that have a plus or minus sign, except the starting cell, must be occupied cells.
(D) Every loop has an even no. of cells and at least four.

Ans: (A)

69. At which of the following stage(s), the degeneracy do not occur in transportation problem?
(m, n represents number of sources and destinations respectively)
(a) While the values of dual variables ui and vj cannot be computed.
(b) While obtaining an initial solution, we may have less than m + n -1 allocations.
(c) At any stage while moving towards optimal solution, when two or more occupied cells with the same minimum allocation become unoccupied simultaneously.
(d) At a stage when the no. of +ve allocation is exactly m + n - 1.
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (3)

70.    Consider the following LPP:
Min. Z = x1+x2+x3
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 ≤ 5
5x+ x2 + 6x3 =7
8x1 + 9x3 ≥ 2
x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0
The standard form of this LPP shall be:
(1) Min. Z = x+ x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x=7;
8x+ 9x3 - x5 = 2;
x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 ≥ 0
(2) Min. Z = x1 + x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5 -1(x6)-1(x7)
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 +x6 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 - x5 + x7 = 2;
x1 to x7 ≥0
(3) Min. Z = x+ x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5 + 0x6
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 - x5 + x= 2;
x1 to x6 ≥ 0
(4) Min. Z = x+ x2 + x3 + 0x4 + 0x5 + 0x6+ 0x7
Subject to 3x1 + 4x3 + x4 = 5;
5x1 + x2 + 6x3 + x6 = 7;
8x1 + 9x3 - x5 + x7 = 2;
x1 to x7 ≥ 0

Ans: (A)

71. 
Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as:
Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe x to the elements of universe z using max-min composition is given by:
Ans: (C)


72. A neuron with 3 inputs has the weight vector [0.2 -0.1 0.1]T and a bias θ = 0. If the input vector is X = [0.2 0.4 0.2]T then the total input to the neuron is:
(A) 0.20
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.02
(D) -1.0

Ans: (C)
73. Which of the following neural networks uses supervised learning?
(A) Multilayer perceptron
(B) Self organizing feature map
(C) Hopfield network

(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (A) and (B) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

Ans: (1)

74. Unix command to change the case of first three lines of file “shortlist” from lower to upper
(A) $ tr ‘[a-z]’ ‘[A-Z]’ shortlist | head-3
(B) $ head-3 shortlist | tr ‘[a-z]’ ‘[A-Z]’
(C) $ tr head-3 shortlist ‘[A-Z]’ ‘[a-z]’
(D) $ tr shortlist head-3 ‘[a-z]’ ‘[A-Z]’

Ans: (B)


75. Match the following vi commands in Unix:
List-I                  List-II
a.            :w        i. saves the file and quits
editing mode
b.                        :x         ii. escapes unix shell
c.             :q         iii. saves file and remains
in editing mode
d.            :sh       iv. quits editing mode and
no changes are saved to
the file
Codes:
     a   b  c  d
(A) ii   iii  i  iv
(B) iv  iii  ii  i
(C) iii  iv  i  ii
(D) iii  i   iv ii

Ans: (D)